HP Upcoming Next Exam English Mock Test -01

HRTC Conductor General Knowledge Questions & Answers

Question 1 : Saima mailed her application for a new job.

  1. The application for a new job had been mailed by Saima.
  2. The application for a new job has been mailed by Saima.
  3. The application for her new job has been mailed by Saima
  4. The application for a new job was mailed by Saima.

Correct Answer: D

Question 2 : Have the car stolen!

  1. Steal the car
  2. You should have the stolen car.
  3. Get someone to steal the car
  4. They have stolen the car.

Correct Answer: C

Question 3 : The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.

  1. The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
  2. the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
  3. to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
  4. The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.

Correct Answer: A

Question 4 : I had to stop all my work to complete this project.

  1. All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me.
  2. For completing this project all other work must be stopped.
  3. For completing this project I had to stop all my work
  4. To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me.

Correct Answer: D

Question 5 : They have published the names of all the successful candidates.

  1. The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
  2. The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
  3. the candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
  4. The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.

Correct Answer: C

Question 6 :

The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.

  1. presented , stay
  2. introduced , keep
  3. announce , make
  4. created , let

Correct Answer: B

Question 7 : The online shopping site lowered the prices.

  1. Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
  2. The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
  3. The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
  4. The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site

Correct Answer: B

HP Upcoming Next Exam English Mock Test -01

  1. To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
  2. Driving a truck by who were you taught?
  3. Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
  4. By whom were you taught to drive a truck?

Correct Answer: D

Question 9 : We shall invite Suresh.

  1. Suresh would be invited by us
  2. Suresh would have been invited by us
  3. Suresh will be invited by us
  4. Suresh will have been invited by us

Correct Answer: C

Question 10 : Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.

  1. By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
  2. The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
  3. Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
  4. The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.

Correct Answer: B

Question 11 : The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.

  1. The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after

B.

The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after

  1. The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
  2. The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow.

Correct Answer: B

Question 12 : Why did break the vase?

  1. why is the vase broken by him?
  2. why was the vase broken by him?
  3. why had been the vase broken by him?
  4. why has been the vase broken by him?

Correct Answer: B

Question 13 : Mariam was writing a note to her boss.

  1. A note was written to her boss by Mariam
  2. A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
  3. A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
  4. A note was written by Mariam to her boss

Correct Answer: C

Question 14 : The baby really enjoys that music.

  1. That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
  2. That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
  3. That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
  4. This music was really enjoyed by the baby.

Correct Answer: C

Question 15 : The weather disrupted the final match.

  1. The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
  2. The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
  3. The final match was disrupted by the weather.
  4. The final match was being disrupted by the weather.

Correct Answer: C

Question 16 : The management committee is required to publish a report every year.

  1. report would be published by the management committee every year.
  2. A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
  3. A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
  4. Every year the report would be published by the management committee.

Correct Answer: C

Question 17 : Preeti ran the race in record time.

  1. In record time Preeti ran the race.
  2. The race was run by Preeti in record time
  3. The race was being run by Preeti in record time
  4. The race had been run by Preeti in record time

Correct Answer: B

Question 18 : I shall have written the full thesis by December

  1. By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
  2. The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
  3. The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
  4. By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.

Correct Answer: B

Question 19 : One must keep one’s promises.

  1. One’s promises must be kept by one.
  2. One’s promises had to be kept.
  3. Promises must be kept.
  4. Promises have to be kept by one.

Correct Answer: C

Question 20 : I read the story in one night..

  1. The story had been read by me in one night.
  2. The story has been read by me in one nigh
  3. n one night the story has been read by me.
  4. the story was read by me in one night

Correct Answer: D

Question 21 : We must take care of the old.

  1. Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
  2. the old must be taken care of by us.
  3. Those who are old need care by us
  4. The old should be taken care of by us.

Correct Answer: B

Question 22 : My father generously donated money to the church.

  1. Money is generously being donated to te church by my father.
  2. Money has been generously donated to the church by my father.
  3. Money had been generously donated to the church by my father.
  4. Money was generously donated to the church by my father.

Correct Answer: D

Question 23 : We will send you your laboratory reports as soon as they are ready

  1. you would be sent your laboratory reports as soon as they will be ready.
  2. Your laboratory reports will be sent to you as soon as they are ready.
  3. You would be send your laboratory reports as soon as they will be ready.
  4. Your laboratory reports should be sent to you as soon as they will be ready.

Correct Answer: B

Question 24 : I saw the master conducting the orchestra.

  1. I saw that the orchestra was being conducted by the master.
  2. I saw the orchestra being conducted by te master
  3. The master was seen conducting the orchestra by me.
  4. The master was conducting the orchestra and I saw that.

Correct Answer: B

Question 25 : The dog is being fed by us.

  1. We fed the dog.
  2. We have had been feeding the dog.
  3. We are feeding the dog
  4. We had been feeding the dog

Correct Answer: C

Question 26 : When did Rohit return my bike?

  1. When was my bike returned by Rohit?
  2. When was it that Rohit returned my bike?
  3. Rohit returned my bike when?
  4. When did my bike come back from Rohit?

Correct Answer: A

Question 27 : They are going to watch a drama tomorrow.

  1. A drama is going to be watched by them tomorrow.
  2. A drama will be watched by them tomorrow.
  3. A drama will be watched by them tomorrow.
  4. A drama was going to be watched by them tomorrow.
    Tomorrow the drama is going to be watched by them.

Correct Answer: A

Question 28 : The event manager is making all the reservations.

  1. All the reservations would be made by the event manager.
  2. All the reservations are being made by the event manager.
  3. All the reservations would have been made by the event manager.
  4. All the reservations will have been made by the event manager.

Correct Answer: B

Question 29 : The Marathas surrendered their fort to the Mughals after the war.

  1. After the war the Marathas had to surrender their fort to the Mughals.
  2. The Mughals after the war took fort surrendered by the Marathas.
  3. Their fort was surrendered by the Marathas to the Mughals after the war
  4. the Marathas after the war surrendered their fort to the Mughals.

Correct Answer: C

Question 30 : Mother filled dark filtered coffee in the cup.

  1. The cup was filled with dark filtered coffee by mother.
  2. Mother filled in the cup coffee which was dark and filtered coffee.
  3. The cup was being by mother with dark filtered coffee.
  4. The filtered coffee which was dark was filled into the cup by mother.

Correct Answer: A

प्रश्न 31 : ‘ऋ’ अर् में बदलता है –

  1. गुण संधि के अनुसार
  2. यण संधि के अनुसार
  3. वृद्धि संधि के अनुसार
  4. अयादि संधि के अनुसार

Correct Answer: A

प्रश्न 32 : निम्न में कौनसा नासिक्य व्यंजन है –

  1. त्
  2. न्
  3. द्
  4. भ्

Correct Answer: B

प्रश्न 33 : निम्न में से उत्क्षिप्त व्यंजन है –

  1. ड़

Correct Answer: C

प्रश्न 34 : निम्न में से अल्प प्राण नहीं है –

Correct Answer: A

प्रश्न 35 : तालव्य व्यंजन है-

  1. ट् ड द ढ
  2. च छ ज झ
  3. त थ द ध
  4. प फ ब भ

Correct Answer: B

प्रश्न 36 : ‘अ’ स्वर का उच्चारण स्थान क्या है –

  1. मूर्धा
  2. कण्ठ
  3. तालु
  4. ओष्ठ

Correct Answer: B

प्रश्न 37 : निम्लखित मे कंट- तालुव्य स्वर कौनसे है

  1. ए-ऐ
  2. ए-ओ
  3. ए-ऊ
  4. त  द

Correct Answer: A

प्रश्न 38 : किस वर्ण के उच्चारण में जिह्वा दाँतों का स्पर्श करती है –

Correct Answer: C

प्रश्न 39 : स्पर्श व्यंजनों को उच्चारण स्थान के आधार पर कितने भागों में बाँटा गया है

  1. तीन
  2. चार
  3. दो
  4. पाँच

Correct Answer: D

प्रश्न 40 : ‘साखी’ शब्द का तत्सम रूप है –

  1. सखी
  2. शाखा
  3. राखी
  4. साक्षी

Correct Answer: D

प्रश्न 41 : किस क्रम में वृत्तमुखी स्वर नहीं है –

  1. ऊँ

Correct Answer: A

प्रश्न 42 : किस क्रम में पश्च स्वर है –

Correct Answer: B

प्रश्न 43 : ‘पंडित दूध पीता है’ इस वाक्य में कारक है –

  1. कर्म, करण
  2. सम्प्रदान, सम्बन्ध
  3. कर्ता, कर्म
  4. इनमें से कोई नहीं

Correct Answer: C

प्रश्न 44 :  ‘ने’ किस कारक का चिह्न है –

  1. कर्ता
  2. करण
  3. सम्प्रदान
  4. कर्म

Correct Answer: A

प्रश्न 45 : “वह जहाँ चाहे, जाये; मुझे क्या लेना-देना।’ यह कैसा वाक्य है –

  1. संयुक्त वाक्य
  2. सरल वाक्य
  3. मिश्रित वाक्य
  4. संयुक्त-मिश्रित वाक्य

Correct Answer: C

प्रश्न 46 : व्याकरण के नियमानुसार किस वाक्य में पदक्रम सही है –

  1. रावण को राम ने मारा।
  2. राम ने रावण को मारा।
  3. मारा राम ने रावण को।
  4. संयुक्त-मिश्रित वाक्य।

Correct Answer: B

प्रश्न 47 : ‘अधिकरण’ कारक का चिह्न है –

  1. अरे
  2. में
  3. से
  4. को

Correct Answer: B

प्रश्न 48 : स्वर होते हैं –

  1. घोष
  2. अघोष
  3. अल्पप्राण
  4. महाप्राण

Correct Answer: A

प्रश्न 49 : निम्नलिखित में से  वर्त्स्य  है –

  1. ल्
  2. ढ़
  3. स्

Correct Answer: D

प्रश्न 50 : “दित्व’ का  प्रयोग किस शब्द में नहीं हुआ है ?

  1. सच्चा
  2. कुत्ता
  3. बल्गा
  4. बग्गा

Correct Answer: C

प्रश्न 51 : उच्चारण स्थान की दृष्टि से इनमें कौनसा व्यंजन तालव्य है

Correct Answer: C

प्रश्न 52 : पंचांग शब्द में उच्चरित ध्वनियों का लेखन निम्नलिखित में से किसमें हुआ –

  1. पन्चाङग
  2. पञ्चान्य
  3. पङ्चाङ्ग
  4. पच्चाड़ग

Correct Answer: C

प्रश्न 53 : निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा कथन गलत है ?

  1. ‘ध’ सघोष, महाप्राण, दन्त्य है।
  2. ‘ब’ सघोष, ओष्ट्य, महाप्राण है।
  3. ‘च’ अघोष, तालव्य, अल्प्राण है।
  4. ‘ख’ कंदय, महाप्राण अघोष

Correct Answer: A

प्रश्न 54 : किस क्रमांक वाली ध्वनि अक्षर ध्वनि है ?

Correct Answer: B

प्रश्न 55 : स्वर रहित ‘र” का प्रयोग हुआ है –

  1. ट्रक में
  2. पुनर्निर्माण में
  3. त्राटक में
  4. शत्रु में

Correct Answer: B

प्रश्न 56 : यदि नीचे का होठ पूरी तरह काट दिया जाये तो किस ध्वनि के उच्चारण में कठिनाई होगी?

Correct Answer: B

प्रश्न 57 : उत्क्षिप्त ध्वनि का प्रयोग हुआ है –

  1. आरजू में
  2. खसरा में
  3. पढ़ाई में
  4. ज़फर में

Correct Answer: C

प्रश्न 58 : संयुक्तों को छोड़कर हिन्दी में मूल वणों की संख्या कितनी है?

  1. 36
  2. 44
  3. 48
  4. 53

Correct Answer: C

प्रश्न 59 : किस क्रमांक में ‘ई’ स्वर का सही उच्चारण स्थान है ?

  1. कण्ठ
  2. तालु
  3. ओष्ठ
  4. मूर्धा

Correct Answer: B

प्रश्न 60 : निम्नलिखित ध्वनियों में से बताइये कि कौनसा वर्ण औष्ठ्य नहीं है –

Correct Answer: D

Question 61 : Yojna a weekly journal

  1. Ministry of Finance
  2. Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. Ministry of Rural Development
  4. Planning Commission

Correct Answer: B

Question 62 : Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

  1. Ministry of Finance
  2. Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. Ministry of Rural Development
  4. Planning Commission

Correct Answer: B

Question 63 : Devaluation of a currency means

  1. Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

Correct Answer: B

Question 64 : In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry

  1. 1 and 3
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 2
  4. 1,2, and 3

Correct Answer: D

Question 65 : Which ofh te following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women

  1. Rashtriya Mahia Kosh
  2. Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. Mahila Samridhi Yojna

Correct Answer: D

Question 66 : What is Net National Product

  1. the money value of final goods ands services produced annually in the economy
  2. the money value of annual service generation in the economy
  3. the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
  4. The money value of tangible goods available in the economy

Correct Answer: A

Question 67 : National income is the

  1. net national product at market price
  2. net national product at factor cost
  3. net domestic product at market price
  4. net domestic product at factor cost

Correct Answer: B

Question 68 : Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our

  1. financial system
  2. tax system
  3. patents and copyrights
  4. Public sector undertakings

Correct Answer: B

Question 69 : During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest

  1. 2ndplan
  2. 3rdplan
  3. 5thplan
  4. 6thplan

Correct Answer: B

Question 70 : Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax

  1. sales tax
  2. custom tax
  3. excise tax
  4. income tax

Correct Answer: D

Question 71 : Which of the following estimates the National Income in India

  1. National Income Committee
  2. Planning Commission
  3. Reserve Bank Of India
  4. Central Statistical Organisation

Correct Answer: D

Question 72 : India changed over to the decimal syste, coinage in

  1. April 1951
  2. April 1955
  3. April 1957
  4. April 1978

Correct Answer: C

Question 73 : 11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year

  1. 2008
  2. 2009
  3. 2010
  4. 2012

Correct Answer: C

Question 74 : Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct

  1. treat urban waste water by 2011-12
  2. Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
  3. attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
  4. increase forest and tree cover by 15% points

Correct Answer: D

Question 75 : Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Develoment Council

  1. President
  2. Prime Minister
  3. Finance Minister
  4. Commerce Minister

Correct Answer: B

Question 76 : Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather

  1. they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
  2. they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
  3. they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
  4. their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages

Correct Answer: C

Question 77 : Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India

  1. Dutt committee
  2. Lakdawala committee
  3. Cheliah Committee
  4. Chakravorty Committee

Correct Answer: B

Question 78 : In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles

  1. 1975
  2. 1981
  3. 1991
  4. 2000

Correct Answer: C

Question 79 : Consider the following statements
1. Tehre is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct

  1. 1,2 and 3
  2. 1,2 and 4
  3. 1,3 and 4
  4. 2,3 and 4

Correct Answer: A

Question 80 : When was first human development report of India issued

  1. April 2001
  2. March 2000
  3. June 2002
  4. April 2002

Correct Answer: D

Question 81 : How many censuses have been carried out since independence

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 8

Correct Answer: C

Question 82 : For which year the latest census is being conducted in India

  1. 2001
  2. 2010
  3. 2012
  4. 2011

Correct Answer: D

Question 83 : Which of the following are the features of 12th Five Year Plan
–           1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health  and education
3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1,2, and 3

Correct Answer: D

Question 84 : The period of 12th Five Year Plan

  1. 2007-12
  2. 2008-13
  3. 2010-15
  4. 2012-17

Correct Answer: D

Question 85 : A closed economy is an economy in which

  1. the money supply is fully controlled
  2. deficit financing takes place
  3. only exports take place
  4. neither exports nor imports take place

Correct Answer: D

Question 86 : Consider the following statements
1. a plan for the current year which includes the annual budget
2. a plan for a fixed number of years, say 34, and 5
3. it is revised every year as per requirements of the economy
4. A perspective plan for 10,15 or 20 years
Which of the above are correct

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1 and 3
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1,2,3 and 4

Correct Answer: B

Question 87 : In the context of Indian Economy consider the following pairs
Term                                                                 Most Appropriate Description
1. Melt Down                                                     Fall in stock prices
2. Recession                                                     Fall in growth rate
3. Slow down                                                    Fall in GDP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1,2 and 3

Correct Answer: A

Question 88 : Deficit finacing means that the government borrows money from the

  1. IMF
  2. RBI
  3. Local bodies
  4. Big Businessmen

Correct Answer: B

Question 89 : In the context of India’s Five Year Plan a shift in the pattern of industrialization with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in

  1. 4thplan
  2. 6thplan
  3. 8thplan
  4. 10thplan

Correct Answer: C

Question 90 : Which of the following is/are an indicator of the financial health of a country
1. GDP                                                             2. PPP
3. FDI in a year

  1. only 1
  2. only 2
  3. only 3
  4. 1,2 and 3

Correct Answer: D

Question 91 : Two parallel metal plates having charges +Q and –Q face each other at a certain distance between them. If the plates are now dipped in kerosene oil tank, the electric field between the plates will

  1. become zero
  2. increase
  3. decrease
  4. remain same

Correct Answer: C

Question 92 : A student measures the distance traversed in free fall of a body, initially at rest in a given time. He uses this data to estimate g; the acceleration due to gravity. If the maximum percentage errors in measurement of the distance and the time are eand erespectively the percentage error in the estimation of g is

  1. e2– e
  2. e+ 2e2
  3. e+ e2
  4. e– 2e2

Correct Answer: B

Question 93 : When monochromatic radiation of intensity falls on a metal surface, the number of photoelectron and their maximum kinetic energy are N and T respectively. If the intensity of radiation is’ 2I, the number of emitted electrons and their maximum kinetic energy are respectively

  1. N and 2T
  2. 2 N and T
  3. 2N and 2T
  4. N and T

Correct Answer: B

Question 94 : A ray of light is incident on a 60° prism at the minimum deviation position. The angle of refraction at the first face (ie, incident face) of the prism is

  1. zero
  2. 30°
  3. 45°
  4. 60°

Correct Answer: B

Question 95 :      For transistor action
(1) Base, emitter and collector regions should have similar size and doping concentrations.
(2) The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.
(3) The emitter-base junction is forward biased and base-collector junction is reverse biased.
(4) Both the emitter-base junction as well as the base collector junction are forward biased.
Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct?

  1. (4) and (1)
  2. (1) and (2)
  3. (2) and (3)
  4. (3) and (4)

Correct Answer: C

Question 96 : The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is half of its initial speed. The angle of projection is

  1. 60°
  2. 15°
  3. 30°
  4. 45°

Correct Answer: A

Question 97 : A particle moves in x-y plane according to rule x = a sin cot and y = a cos wt. The particle follows

  1. an elliptical path
  2. a circular path
  3. a parabolic path
  4. a straight line path inclined equally to x and y-axes

Correct Answer: B

Question 98 : A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.5 × 10–4 mcarries a current of 2.0 A. It is suspended through its centre and perpendicular to its length, allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane in a uniform magnetic field 5 × 10–2 T making an angle of 30° with the axis of the solenoid. The torque on the solenoid will be

  1. 3 × 10–3N-m
  2. 1.5 × 10–3N-m
  3. 1.5 × 10–2N-m
  4. 3 × 10–2N-m

Correct Answer: C

Question 99 : A particle having a mass of 10–2 kg carries a charge of 5 × 10–6 C. The particle is given an initial horizontal velocity of 105 ms–1 in the presence of electric field  and magnetic field . To keep the particle moving in a horizontal direction, it is necessary that
(1)  should be perpendicular to the direction of velocity and  should be along the direction of velocity.
(2) Both  and  should be along the direction of velocity.
(3) Both  and  are mutually perpendicular and perpendicular to the direction of velocity.
(4)  should be along the direction of velocity and  should be perpendicular to the direction of velocity.
Which one of the following pairs of statements is possible?

  1. (1) and (3)
  2. (3) and (4)
  3. (2) and (3)
  4. (2) and (4)

Correct Answer: C

Question 100 : The binding energy per nucleon in deuterium and helium nuclei are 1.1 MeV and 7.0 MeV, respectively. When two deuterium nuclei fuse to form a helium nucleus the energy released in the fusion is

  1. 23.6 MeV
  2. 24.6 MeV
  3. 28.0 MeV
  4. 30.2 MeV

Correct Answer: A

Question 101 : Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the order of increasing atomic radii is Mg

  1. Mg < Ca < Cl < P
  2. Cl < P < Mg < Ca
  3. P < Cl < Ca < Mg
  4. Ca < Mg < P < Cl

Correct Answer: B

Question 102 : The pressure exerted by 6.0 g of methane gas in a 0.03 mvessel at 129° C is (Atomic masses : C = 12.01, H = 1.01 and R –8.314 JK–1 mol–1)

  1. 215216 Pa
  2. 13409 Pa
  3. 41648 Pa
  4. 31684 Pa

Correct Answer: C

Question 103 : Among the following four compounds

A. Phenol
B. Methyl pheno
C. meta-nitrophenol
D. para nitrophenol the acidity order is

  1. D > C > A > B
  2. C > D > A > B
  3. A > D > C > B
  4. B > A > C > D

Correct Answer: A

Question 104 : Among the following which one has the highest cation to anion size ratio?

  1. Csl
  2. CsF
  3. LiF
  4. NaF

Correct Answer: B

Question 105 : Three moles of an ideal gas expanded spontaneously into vacuum. The work done will be

  1. Infinite
  2. 3 J
  3. 9 J
  4. Zero

Correct Answer: D

Question 106 : Consider the following relations for emf of a electrochemical cell

(A) Emf of cell = (oxidation potential of anode) – (reduction potential of cathode)
(B) Emf of cell = (oxidation potential of anode) + (reduction potential of cathode)
(C) Emf of cell = (reduction potential of anode) + (reduction potential of cathode)
(D) Emf of cell = (oxidation potential anode) –  (Oxidation potential of cathode)

Which of the above relations are correct?

  1. (C) and (A)
  2. (A) and (B)
  3. (C) and (D)
  4. (B) and (D)

Correct Answer: D

Question 107 :  Match List I (substances) with List II (processe employe in the manufacture of the substances) and select the correct option.
List I                                  List II
(Substances)                   (Processes)
A.Sulphuric acid         1. Haber’s process
B.Steel                      2. Bessemer’s  process
C.Sodium                  3. Leblanc process hydroxide
D.Ammonia               4. Contact process

  1. 1    4    2    3
  2. 1    2    3    4
  3. 4    3    2    1
  4. 4    2    3    1

Correct Answer: D

Question 108 : When glycerol is treated with excess of HI, it produces

  1. 2-iodopropane
  2. allyl iodide
  3. propene
  4. glycerol triiodide

Correct Answer: A

Question 109 : Some statements about heavy water are given below
(A) Heavy water is used as moderator in nuclear reactors.
(B) Heavy water is more associated than ordinary water.
(C) Heavy water is more effective solvent than ordinary water.
Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. A and B
  2. A, B and C
  3. B and C
  4. A and C

Correct Answer: A

Question 110 : Which of the following oxidation states is the most common among the lanthanoids?

  1. 4
  2. 2
  3. 5
  4. 3

Correct Answer: D

Question 111 : Which one of the following pairs of structures is correctly matched with their correct description?

  1. Structure                                     Description
    Tibia and fibula                       Both form parts of knee joint
  2. Cartilage and cornea               No blood supply but do require oxygen for respiratory need
  3. Shoulder joint and elbow joint   Ball and socket type of joint
  4. Premolars and molars        20 in all and 3 rooted

Correct Answer: B

Question 112 : Fastest distribution of some injectible material/medicine and with no risk of any kind can be achieved by injecting it into the

  1. muscles
  2. arteries
  3. veins
  4. lymph vessels

Correct Answer: C

Question 113 : Which one of the following statements about the particular entity is true?

  1. Centromere is found in animal cells which produces aster during cell division
  2. The gene for producing insulin is present in every body cell
  3. Nucleosome is formed of nucleotides
  4. DNA consists of a core of eight histones

Correct Answer: B

Question 114 : Which one of the following is a xerophytic plant in which the stem is modified into the flat green and succulent structure?

  1. Opuntia
  2. Casuarina
  3. Hydrilla
  4. Acacia

Correct Answer: A

Question 115 : Which of the following is used in gene cloning?

  1. Nucleoids
  2. Lomasomes
  3. Mesosomes
  4. Plasmids

Correct Answer: D

Question 116 : When domestic sewage mixes with river water

  1. small animals like rats will die after drinking river water
  2. the increased microbial activity releases micronutrients such as iron
  3. the increased microbial activity uses up dissolved oxygen
  4. the river water is still suitable for drinking as impurities are only about 0.1%

Correct Answer: C

Question 117 : In which one of the following organism, its excretory organs are correctly stated?

  1. Humans — Kidneys, sebaceous glands and tear glands
  2. Earthworm — Pharyngeal, integumentary and septal nephridia
  3. Cockroach — Malpighian tubules and enteric caeca
  4. Frog — Kidneys, skin and buccal epithelium

Correct Answer: B

Question 118 : The most apparent change during the evolutionary history of Homo sapiens is traced in

  1. loss of body hair
  2. walking upright
  3. shortening of the jaws
  4. remarkable increase in the brain size

Correct Answer: B

Question 119 : Which one of the following is now commercially produced by biotechnolo procedures?

  1. Nicotine
  2. Morphine
  3. Quinine
  4. Insulin

Correct Answer: D

Question 120 : If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-functional, what is likely to happen?

  1. The pancreatic enzymes and specially the trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently
  2. The pH of stomach will fall abruptly
  3. Steapsin will be more effective
  4. Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones

Correct Answer: D

Question 121 : Choose the industrial cities that grew rapidly in Britain in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries:

  1. Leeds and Manchester
  2. Bristol and Manchester
  3. Carlisle and Leeds
  4. Chester and Leeds

Correct Answer: A

Question 122 : Which were the three Presidency cities of Colonial India in late eighteenth century?

  1. Calcutta, Bombay and Madras
  2. Calcutta, Bombay and Surat
  3. Bombay, Madras and Delhi
  4. None of these

Correct Answer: A

Question 123 : What is Urbanization?

  1. Migration of population from rural to urban area
  2. Migration of people from urban to rural
  3. Migration of people from one country to another
  4. Migration of population from one state to another one

Correct Answer: A

Question 124 : What is de urbanization in the colonial context?

  1. The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports emerged due to emergence of new cities.
  2. The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports declined due to emergence of new cities.
  3. a and b both
  4. None of these

Correct Answer: B

Question 125 : Which of the following Indian cities which were de-urbanized during the nineteenth century?
i. Machlipatnam
ii. Surat
iii. Seringapatam
iv. Bombay

  1. i and ii
  2. i, iv and ii
  3. i, ii and iii
  4. i, ii, iii and iv

Correct Answer: C

Question 126 : In which year Delhi became the capital of British India?

  1. 1916
  2. 1913
  3. 1915
  4. 1911

Correct Answer: D

Question 127 : When was Shahjahanabad built?

  1. by ShahJahan in 1640
  2. by ShahJahan in 1638
  3. by ShahJahan in 1639
  4. None of these

Correct Answer: C

Question 128 : Before Delhi, which city was the capital of British India?

  1. Calcutta
  2. Madras
  3. Bombay
  4. Agra

Correct Answer: A

Question 129 : What is Gulfaroshan?

  1. It was a festival of flowers celebrated annually in Patna during 16thcentury
  2. It was a festival of flowers celebrated annually in Delhi during 18th century
  3. It was a festival of flowers celebrated annually in Delhi during 11thcentury
  4. All of these

Correct Answer: B

Question 130 : Which period was referred as Delhi renaissance?

  1. 1857-1860
  2. 1860-1863
  3. 1865-1870
  4. 1830-1857

Correct Answer: D

Question 131 : In the 1870s, for what reasons the western walls of Shahjahanabad were broken?

  1. The walls were broken to establish the railway and to allow the city to expand beyond the walls.
  2. The walls were broken to establish textile and iron industries
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of these

Correct Answer: A

Question 132 : On which hills was the city of New Delhi built on?

  1. Almoda hills
  2. Vindhva hills.
  3. Raisina Hill
  4. None of these

Correct Answer: C

Question 133 : Name the architects who designed New Delhi and its buildings.

  1. Edward Lutyens and Herbert Baker
  2. Herbert Baker and Harbar Lutyens
  3. Edward Lutyens and Harbar Lutyens
  4. None of these

Correct Answer: A

Question 134 : How many years did it take to build the city of New Delhi?

  1. 15 years
  2. 35 years
  3. 20 years
  4. 25 years

Correct Answer: C

Question 135 : Where was Bahadur Shah Zafar exiled to after 1857 revolt?

  1. Kashmir
  2. south region
  3. Afghanistan
  4. Burma

Correct Answer: D

Question 136 : Which of the following Defines Renaissance?

  1. It means rebirth of art and learning
  2. It is a term often used to describe a time when there is great creative activity
  3. a and b both
  4. None of these

Correct Answer: C

Question 137 : When was Delhi College established?

  1. 1792
  2. 1793
  3. 1794
  4. 1792

Correct Answer: D

Question 138 : Kamal Khan Gakkhar was made a Mansabdar by:

  1. Babur
  2. Akabar
  3. Shanjahan
  4. Jahangir

Correct Answer: B

Question 139 : The British conquest of Bengal began with the Battle of?

  1. Buxur
  2. Tripoli
  3. St.Tome
  4. Plassey

Correct Answer: D

Question 140 : Haidar Ali and Tipu Sultan were the rulers of?

  1. Madhya province
  2. Bengal
  3. Awadh
  4. Mysore

Correct Answer: D

Question 141 : The government had recently launched central Equipment Identify Register Portal. It operates under which of department?

  1. Department of Science and Technology
  2. Department of Telecom
  3. Department of Biotechnology
  4. Department of Public Enterprise

Correct Answer: B

Question 142 : Dhanu Jatra is currently celebrated in which state?

  1. Odisha
  2. Telangana
  3. Jharkhand
  4. Madhya Pradesh

Correct Answer: A

Question 143 : Fausta, a female block rhino, believed to be the world’s oldest rhino, has recently died in Tanzanian conversation area. What is the IUCN status of the black rhinos?

  1. Least concern
  2. Endangered
  3. Critically Endangered
  4. Near threatened

Correct Answer: C

Question 144 : Which state is going to observe “No Vehicle Day”on the first day of every month in 2020?

  1. Kerala
  2. Gujarat
  3. Punjab
  4. Rajasthan

Correct Answer: D

Question 145 : Where was the event held to commemorate the 76th Anniversary of the First Flag Hoisting by Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose?

  1. Kashmir
  2. Jammu
  3. Ladakh
  4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Correct Answer: D

Question 146 : Which state is going to conduct its maiden snow leopard survey?

  1. Uttrakhand
  2. Himachal Pradesh
  3. Haryana
  4. Punjab

Correct Answer: A

Question 147 : Which ministry is set to launch “Santusht” portal for rapid grievance redressal for the employers and the employees?

  1. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  2. Ministry of Finance
  3. Ministry of Labor and Employment
  4. Ministry of Human Resource Development

Correct Answer: C

Question 148 : Who is going to head the recently constituted task force for developing the National Infrastructure Pipeline?

  1. Cabinet Secretary
  2. Economic affairs Secretary
  3. Revenue Secretary
  4. Finance Secretary

Correct Answer: B

Question 149 : The dornier aircraft, that was recently inducted into the Otters Squadron, belongs to which category?

  1. Reconnaissance aircraft
  2. Light utility aircraft
  3. Surveillance aircraft
  4. Strategic airlifter

Correct Answer: B

Question 150 : Captain Vikram Batra, after whom Delhi is to rename It’s Mukarba Chowk, was martyred in which war?

  1. Sino-Indian war of 1962
  2. Indo-Pakistan war of 1947
  3. Kargil war
  4. Bangladesh Liberation War

Correct Answer: C

Question 151 : The agreement  on the prohibition of attack against nuclear installation and facilities was signed in 1988 between which two countries?

  1. US and USSR
  2. USSR and China
  3. India and Pakistan
  4. India and USSR

Correct Answer: C

Question 152 : From which Indian organization, the four personnel have been selected for training in Russia for the Gaganyaan Mission, that is going to be launched in 2022?

  1. ISRO
  2. IAF
  3. MARCOS
  4. Indian Navy

Correct Answer: A

Question 153 : Who will launch the “Earthshot Prize” to motivate new solution to tackle climate crisis?

  1. Duke of Cambrige
  2. Queen Elizabeth II
  3. Duke of Sussex
  4. Prince of Wales

Correct Answer: A

Question 154 : Who will be the head of the recently cretaedSainya Karta Vibhag?

  1. Prime Minister
  2. Defence Minister
  3. Finance Minister
  4. Chief of Defence Staff

Correct Answer: D

Question 155 : Which nation has recently banned the ‘reef toxic’ sunscreen?

  1. Australia
  2. New Zealand
  3. Palau
  4. Nauru

Correct Answer: C

Question 156 : How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

  1. Two
  2. Three
  3. Five
  4. Four

Correct Answer: C

Sol.

Question 157 : How many meaningful English words can be formed by using 2nd, 4th, 7th and 9th letters of the word ‘WONDERFUL’, each only once, but in different sequence?

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. None

Correct Answer: A

Sol.

Question 158 : If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

  1. A
  2. E
  3. T
  4. X

Correct Answer: E

Sol.

Question 159 : How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

  1. None
  2. One
  3. Two
  4. Three

Correct Answer: C

Sol.

Question 160 : How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

  1. None
  2. One
  3. Two
  4. Three

Correct Answer: C

Sol.

Question 161 : How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

  1. None
  2. One
  3. Two
  4. Three

Correct Answer: D

Sol.Meaningful words Þ LAME, MALE, MEAL

Question 162 : If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

  1. T
  2. L
  3. E
  4. Y

Correct Answer: D

Sol.

Question 163 : If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

  1. None
  2. One
  3. Two
  4. Three

Correct Answer: A

Sol.    H    A    N    D    O    V    E    R
V    R    O    N    H    E    D    A
No letter is at the same position.

Question 164 : How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

  1. None
  2. One
  3. Two
  4. Three

Correct Answer: E

Sol.

Question 165 : If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.

  1. V
  2. T
  3. E
  4. A

Correct Answer: C

Sol.

Question 166 : If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following  will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement?

  1. N
  2. Q
  3. J
  4. M

Correct Answer: C

Sol.

Question 167 : How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?

  1. None
  2. One
  3. Two
  4. Three

Correct Answer: D

Sol.

Question 168 : How many meaningful English words can be formed by using two letters of the word ‘GOT’?

  1. Three
  2. Two
  3. One
  4. More than three

Correct Answer: B

Sol.Meaningful words Þ Go, To

Question 169 : If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’  and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.

  1. P
  2. L
  3. T
  4. X

Correct Answer: C

Sol.

Question 170 : How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?

  1. None
  2. One
  3. Two
  4. Three

Correct Answer: D

Sol.Meaningful words Þ ARE, EAR, ERA

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